2013년 11월 29일 금요일

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시험 번호/코드: 9A0-097
시험 이름: Adobe (Adobe Premiere Pro CS4 ACE Exam)
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Q&A: 90 문항
업데이트: 2013-11-28

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NO.1 Which menu item is related to the layer set that links to the previous submenu when chapter indexes
are created?
A. Next button
B. Button name
C. Chapter button
D. Previous button
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following steps will you take to replace a clip with another?
A. Drag a clip from the Project panel or Source Monitor onto a clip in the Timeline panel.
B. Drag a clip from the Project panel or Source Monitor onto the last clip in the Timeline panel.
C. Drag a clip from the Project panel or Source Monitor onto an empty space in the Timeline panel.
D. Remove the unwanted clip and copy the clip from the source and paste on the place of first
clip.
Answer: A

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NO.3 For which of the following elements of a Premiere Pro project can you specify locations under scratch
disk tab in the New Project dialog box?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Preview Audio
B. Edited Sequences
C. Preview Video
D. Captured Audio
E. Captured Video
Answer:A,C, D, E,

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NO.4 . Which of the following tools in Flowchart moves the manually placed items in the Flowchart?
A. Move tool
B. Edit tool
C. Selection tool
D. Direct Select tool
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following options in the Flowchart gives the visual clues about elements and links?
A. Type icons
B. Link lines
C. Info badges
D. Thumbnails
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following options will you select in Adobe Encore's Project panel to check the DVD
transcoded state of the asset?
A. DVD Transcode Settings
B. Blu-ray Transcode Settings
C. Blu-ray Transcode Status
D. DVD Transcode Status
Answer: D

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NO.7 What characteristics of the audio tracks are determined when you map the audio channels in clips?
A. Format
B. effects
C. Length
D. Type and number
Answer: D

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NO.8 In which format the closed captions are exported?
A. TXT
B. WMV
C. DOC
D. SCC
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following options in the Build panel does restrict the number of copies that can be made
of your disc?
A. SSC
B. CGMS
C. CSS
D. Macrovision
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following components of Onlocation records and plays back video clips?
A. Image Viewer and Recorder
B. Field Monitor
C. Digital Video Recorder
D. Sureshot
Answer: C

Adobe   9A0-097자격증   9A0-097시험문제

NO.11 Which of the following tabs in the New Sequence Dialog box allows you to control the number of video
tracks and the number and type of audio tracks for the new sequences you create?
A. General
B. Audio Settings
C. Sequence Presets
D. Tracks
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following steps will you take to import a file as an asset in Encore?
A. Choose Settings > Import as > Asset.
B. Choose File > Asset.
C. Choose File > Import As > Asset.
D. Click Import Asset button.
Answer: C

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NO.13 You want to add a zoom effect to a slide. What will be the resulted affect of this effect on the image?
A. Flipped image
B. Rolling image
C. Cropped image
D. Change in the image's magnification
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following steps will you take to apply an effect to a clip?
A. Right click on the clip and select Insert Effect.
B. Drag the effect to the last clip in the Timeline.
C. Drag the effect to a clip in the Timeline panel.
D. Right click on the effect in the Effect panel and select Send to a Clip.
Answer: C

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NO.15 You are using a device controller that generates its own timecode. You want to replace unreadable
timecode recorded on the tape with the controller's timecode in Adobe Premiere Pro. Which of the
following steps will you take to accomplish the task?
A. Go to capture options in the Preference dialog box > Abort Capture on Dropped Frames.
B. Go to capture options in the Preference dialog box > Report Dropped Frames.
C. Go to capture options in the Preference dialog box > Generate Batch Log File Only.
D. Go to capture options in the Preference dialog box > Use Device Control Timecode.
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: 9A0-152
시험 이름: Adobe (Adobe After Effects CS5 ACE Exam)
당신이 구입하기 전에 시도
일년동안 무료 업데이트
100% 환불보장약속
100% 합격율 보장
Q&A: 73 문항
업데이트: 2013-11-28

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NO.1 You have been asked to render a sequence of frames in 32bpc. Which two formats allow you to do this?
(Choose two)
A. RLE
B. TIFF
C. JPEG
D. Targa
E. Cineon
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 Which two statements about importing native R3D (RED) files into After Effects are true? (Choose
two.)
A. The REDSource Settings color adjustments don't preserve overbright values.
B. R3D Files are interpreted as containing 32-bpc colors in a non-linear
C. Exposure can be manipulated only in the footage interpretation stage, in the RED R3D Source Settings
dialog box bar
D. The R3D pixelaspect ratio cannot be modified in the footage interpretation stage
E. Only half and quarter resolution are supported
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 What happens when you insert a dynamically-liked composition into a Premiere Pro timeline, and play it
back within Premiere Pro?
A. You see a black frame until you render it or create a RAM preview inside After Effects.
B. Premiere Pro must render the linked composition before generatingreal-time playback
C. Premiere Pro can play back the comp in real-time, without the need to render it side After Effects.
D. After Effects renders the linked composition on a frame-by-frame basic during playback in Premiere
Pro.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the purpose of the command Composition > Pre render?
A. to render a RAM review of the composition
B. to render and save the RAM preview to disk
C. to render and create a Disk Cache preview of the composition
D. to addthe composition to the render queue with the Post Render Action set to Import and Replace
usage.
Answer: B

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NO.5 You want to disable thumbnails in the Project in the Project panel to conserve system resource in a
large project. Which option in the After Effects Preferences dialog lets you complete this task?
A. General
B. Display
C. Previews
D. Appearance
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two features are supported when you render a movie using the OpenGL render engine?
(Choose two.)
A. Layer Styles
B. 2D motion blur
C. Particle effects
D. Intersecting 3D layers
E. Shininess property settings for 3D layers
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 You have imported a video clip of unknown size and duration. You have heighted the clip in the Project
panel. What should you do to create a composition that will automatically be the right size and duration?
A. choose File > Add Footage to Comp
B. choose Composition > New Composition
C. choose File > New Comp from Selection
D. choose Composition > Add to Render Queue
Answer: C

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NO.8 How do you quickly invoke the composition navigator flowchart?
A. press U
B. press F10
C. tap the Shift key
D. tap the space bar
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have added a composition to the Render Queue, chosen an Output Module, and clicked Render.
How do you view how much time it is taking to render each frame of me composition?
A. twirldown me Current Render m the Render Queue panel, and look underRendering > Layer
B. go to Preferences > Display and select ShowRendering Progress in Info Paneland Flowerchart
C. twirldown me Current Render in the Render Queue panel, and loot under Frame Time >Average
D. calculate thevalues between the Estimated Remain timeand the startingtime of me render, and
drivebytheamount offrames inyour comp
Answer: C

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NO.10 You have opened a template project and made various changes to it. Which is the most efficient way to
save it as a new template for future use?
A. Choose File > Save As, and replace the current project file
B. Choose File > Increment And Save to create a new copy
C. Choose File > Save a Copy as XML to create a new copy
D. Choose File > Save, and rename the filename using the .aet extension
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: 9A0-164
시험 이름: Adobe (Adobe Captivate® 5.5 ACE Exam)
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NO.1 Which two slide placeholders can be added to project templates? (Choose two.)
A.Recording Slide Placeholder
B.Image Slide Placeholder
C.Animation Slide Placeholder
D.Question Slide Placeholder
E.PowerPoint Slide Placeholder
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Your company standards state that the corporate logo must be used in all the content you create.How
should you implement this in your eLearning course?
A.Add the logo to the Master slide.
B.Paste the logo on all the slides.
C.Paste the logo on the first slide and select the timing as rest of the slide.
D.Make the logo as a background image for all the slides.
Answer: A

Adobe   9A0-164   9A0-164

NO.3 You want to record a software simulat-ion using the Snap to Application Region option and you end up
selecting a wrong region.How should you select a different region?
A.Exit the Capture dialog and restart the workflow.
B.Click Configure Region and select a new region.
C.Click Reconfigure Region and select a new region.
D.Once selected, you cannot change the region.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are creating a course for a wide audience and you are NOT sure of the screen resolution they are
using.Which project size should you choose?
A.200 x 200
B.320 x 240
C.800 x 600
D.1280 x 720
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have to add a Full Motion Recording (FMR) to your project.You do NOT want the mouse to appear
in the recorded slide.What should you do?
A.In the Preferences dialog, under Recording FMR category, uncheck Show Mouse in Full Motion
Recording Mode.
B.In the Preferences dialog, under Recording Settings category, uncheck Show Mouse in Full Motion
Recording Mode.
C.In the Preferences dialog, under Recording FMR category, select Hide Mouse in Full Motion Recording
Mode.
D.In the Preferences dialog, under Recording Settings category, select Hide Mouse in Full Motion
Recording Mode.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which is the extension of a project created using Aggregator?
A.CPTA
B.CPTX
C.SWF
D.AGGR
Answer: D

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NO.7 You want to combine multiple projects and publish them using Aggregator.What should you do?
A.Ensure that all project filenames have no spaces.
B.Ensure that all of the modules have been published as SWF.
C.Ensure that all of the modules have been published as EXE.
D.Create a master slide with click boxes that link to each project.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are creating a simul-ation to explain how a particular dialog in Adobe Photoshop functions.Which
command should you choose to record this simul-ation?
A.Application > Snap to Custom Size.
B.Application > Snap to Application Region.
C.Screen Area > Snap to Full Screen.
D.Screen Area > Snap to Application Region.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the most efficient way to capture actions outside the recording area?
A.Record two videos, each showing the actions in their respective recording areas.After recording, import
the slides and objects from one project into the other.
B.Use the Custom recording mode and select Force all actions into the Recording Area.
C.When creating the new project, select a Recording area that will be big enough to capture everything
you'll be doing on your screen.
D.Select either Automatic or Manual Panning prior to recording thesimulat-ion.
Answer: D

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NO.10 You have created a course using a project template that contains a caption placeholder for onscreen
text.How will you add text to this placeholder?
A.Choose Edit > Add Text to Placeholder.
B.Right-click the placeholder and select Add Text to Placeholder.
C.Double-click the placeholder.
D.In the Properties Inspector, under General accordion, click Add Text to Placeholder.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the YouTube Widescreen Standard Dimensions available in Captivate project presets?
A.640x480
B.640x360
C.800x600
D.1024x768
Answer: B

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NO.12 You are creating eLearning content for high definition output.Which project size should you choose?
A.320 x 240
B.800 x 600
C.1024 x 768
D.1280 x 720
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is the difference between a project template and a master slide?
A.Project templates can contain master slides; master slides cannot contain templates.
B.Project templates cannot contain master slides; master slides can contain templates.
C.Placeholders can be used in master slides but not in project templates.
D.Placeholders cannot be used in project templates.
Answer: A

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NO.14 You are creating a software simulat-ion on how to draw using a Paintbrush in Adobe Photoshop.Which
is the most efficient mode of recording this simulat-ion?
A.Automatic
B.Full Motion
C.Manual
D.Custom
Answer: B

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NO.15 You are creating a branching course.Which is the most effective workspace to use for this project?
A.Classic
B.Effects
C.Navigation
D.Review
Answer: C

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NO.16 You have recorded a Full Motion Recording (FMR) and need to delete some frames.What should you
do?
A.You CANNOT edit the FMR.Instead, re-record the lesson being careful not to include any extra mouse
actions.
B.Open the FMR in Flash for editing.Import the edited FMR back into Captivate.
C.Go to the slide containing the FMR.In Properties Inspector > FMR Edit Options, choose Trim.
D.On the Timeline, double-click the FMR.The FMR Editor will open giving you the ability to edit the
FMR.Remove frames, click Save, and return to Captivate.
Answer: C

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NO.17 You need to publish your project to Apple iPad.Which default preset should you choose?
A.Apple iPad (1024x768)
B.Apple iPad (800x600)
C.Apple iPad (1440x1080)
D.Apple iPad (1280x720)
Answer: A

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NO.18 You created a software simulat-ion and noticed that none of the new windows you opened during the
recording process are recorded.What should you have done prior to creating the simulat-ion?
A.In the Preferences dialog, set the Global Default to Move New Windows Inside Recording Area.
B.In the Preferences dialog, click Recording Settings and select Move New Windows Inside Recording
Area.
C.During the recording process, pause the recording, drag the new window inside the capture area,
resume recording and then manually create a screen capture.
D.When creating a softwaresimulat-ion, always use a project template.
Answer: B

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NO.19 You modify the Classic workspace according to your project requirements.Later, you want to go back
to the default Classic settings.What should you do?
A.Choose Window > Workspace > Classic.
B.Choose Window > Workspace > Reset Classic.
C.Choose File > Workspace > Classic.
D.Choose File > Workspace > Reset Classic.
Answer: B

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NO.20 You are creating a compliance course and need the course to be non-functional after a certain time
period.Which option in the Preferences dialog should you select?
A.Under General Settings category, select Project Expiry Date.
B.Under Project Publish Settings category, select Project Expiry Date.
C.Under Project Start and End category, select Project Expiry Date.
D.Under Project Information category, select Project Expiry Date.
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: Maya12-A
시험 이름: Autodesk (Maya 2012 Certified Associate Examination)
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NO.1 When choosing an NISC Video Image preset, in addition to image width and height, which
other setting is changed
A. Pixel Aspect Ratio
B. Renderable Camera
C. File format becomes TGA
D. Device Aspect Ratio
Answer: A

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NO.2 What does the nConstraint Membership Tool for nCloth allows users to do?
A. Add vertices to a selected dynamic constraint
B. Remove vertices from a selected dynamic constraint
C. Both of the above.
D. Neither of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the syntax to add a single-line comment in a script?
A. //
B. <>
C. "
D. ==
Answer: A

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NO.4 What modes can you work in when modeling with Subdivision surfaces?
A. Polygon mode and NURBS mode
B. Standard mode and Polygon mode.
C. Standard mode and Coarser mode.
D. NURBS mode and Component mode.
Answer: B

Autodesk   Maya12-A   Maya12-A   Maya12-A

NO.5 Which file format lets you exchange complex data between Maya and other software while
preserving the data's overall behavior?
A. OBJ
B. FBX
C. DXF
D. None of the above
Answer: B

Autodesk pdf   Maya12-A   Maya12-A   Maya12-A

NO.6 How is a Soft Body different from a Rigid Body?
A. Afield can't be connected to Soft Body particles.
B. Rigid Bodies can't be affected by a Dynamic constraint.
C. A Soft Body can be keyframed using the Set Active Key command.
D. Rigid Bodies don't deform.
Answer: D

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NO.7 The shading network in a Normal 2DTexture Map is made up of which of the following?
A. One file texture node and a projection node that defines the texture's placement
B. One file texture node and the place2DTexture node that defines the texture's placement.
C. Two place 2DTexture nodes.
D. One place 2DTexture node and one place 3Dtexture node
Answer: B

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NO.8 "Swimming" is a potential problem with Projected textures. This is an effect where it looks like
the
animated object is moving or 'swimming' through the texture.
What can be done to fix this? Select all that apply.
A. If the object is just transforming and not deforming, parent the 3D Placement node to the
animated object
B. If the object is deforming, you can use a Texture Reference object or convert the file to a 2D
texture
C. If the object is deforming, you can bake the deformation by using Edit > Keys > Bake
Simulation
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 Which statement is most accurate?
DmapAutofocus...
A. adjusts the size of the square grid of pixels that's placed in front of the light for the first pass
Raytrace
Shadow calculation
B. is the attribute that controls the focal point used in depth of field calculation
C. controls the shadow anti-aliasing level used for the Raytrace Shadow calculation
D. is the attribute that automatically controls where the Dmap will be focused.
Answer: B

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NO.10 To composite two layers together you would use...
A. Composition settings
B. Garbage Mask
C. Remap Color
D. Blend & Comp
Answer: A

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NO.1 should include basic elements designed to understand and mitigate risk.
It usually includes:
Written program
Compliance-related policies and procedures
A. Tactical Compliance procedure
B. Rank solution
C. Compliance program
D. None of these
Answer: C

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NO.2 In a compliance program, tactical compliance procedures should be integrated into
business line procedures, such as how to deliver an Adverse Action Notice when an
application is declined. In this case:
A. Regulations should be applied consistently to procedures throughout the bank
B. Revisions to procedures should be based on compliance expertise and not mere editing
C. Providing solutions to mitigate any identified risk
D. Assisting business units in developing or revising policies and procedures to reflect
current regulatory requirements
Answer: A, B

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NO.3 A compliance professional’s responsibilities include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Understanding the business units operating environment and risk tolerance
B. Performing risk assessments with the assistance of business units to determine current
risk levels and risks associated with the bank’s products, lines of business, customers, and
locations, among other factors
C. Working with business units to ensure prompt corrective action for any detected errors
D. Assisting business lines with compliance training for employees, as needed
Answer: D

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NO.4 They also embrace the concept of risk-based compliance management. They expect
compliance management to be tailored to the bank, be it large or small, offering standard
or specialty financial services, simple or complex products lines, and adjusted as
appropriate for the customer base as that issued for the Bank Secrecy Act, also
establishes their expectations that a bank’s program be risk based. Who are they?
A. Outsourcing firms
B. Foreign financial service providers
C. Bank regulatory agencies
D. Risk management organizations
Answer: C

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NO.5 To be effective, compliance risk management professionals must design a framework to
ensure that bank management understands the risks and the steps that must be taken to
mitigate them. The many roles compliance professionals fill incorporate risk management
aspects including:
A. Coordinating regulatory exams to explain risks to examiners
B. Overseeing compliance training targeting higher risk areas
C. Tracking regulatory proposals and final rules to understand new risks
D. All of these
Answer: D

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NO.1 .Which of the following will increase stability?
A. Lowering the center of gravity.
B. Raising the center of gravity.
C. Decreasing the base of support.
D. Moving the center of gravity farther from the edge bf the base of support.
Answer: A

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NO.2 .Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the "power position" used for lifting with proper
body mechanics?
A. Shoulders slouched.
B. Back straight.
C. Body bent forward from the hips.
D. Knees slightly bent.
Answer: A

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NO.3 .Standard sites for the measurement of skinfolds include the
A. Medial thigh.
B. Biceps.
C. Infrailiac.
D. Forearm.
Answer: B

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NO.4 .Blood from the peripheral anatomy flows to the heart through the superior and inferior venae
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A. Right atrium.
B. Left atrium.
C. Right ventricle.
D. Left ventricle.
Answer: A

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NO.5 .Blood leaving the heart to be oxygenated in the lungs must first pass through the right atrium and
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ventricle?
A. Bicuspid valve.
B. Tricuspid valve.
C. Pulmonic valve.
D. Aortic valve.
Answer: B

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NO.6 .Functions of bone include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Support for the body.
B. Protection of organs and tissues.
C. Production of red blood cells.
D. Production of force.
Answer: D

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NO.7 .Pain caused by low back muscle guarding and spasm in the absence of signs of disk herniation is
often treated with muscle stretching. Which of the following is (are) helpful stretching activities for
the low back?
A. Knee to chest.
B. Double-knee to chest.
C. Lower trunk rotation.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.8 .The intervertebral disks have which of the following characteristics?
A. Calcified outer ring.
B. Gelatinous inner nucleus portion.
C. Gray matter surrounding the neural cell bodies.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.9 .In second-class lever,
A. The Axis is located between the effort force and the resistance.
B. The resistance is located between the effort force and the axis.
C. The effort force is located between the resistance and the axis.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.10 .Cartilage is categorized as which of the following types of connective tissue?
A. Loose.
B. Dense.
C. Fluid.
D. Supporting.
Answer: D

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NO.11 .The C-shaped cartilages of the trachea allow all of the following to occur EXCEPT
A. Ciliated movement of mucus-secreting cells.
B. Distention of the esophagus.
C. Maintenance of open airway.
D. Prevention of tracheal collapse during pres- sure changes.
Answer: A

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NO.12 .Which of the following is considered to be a "balland-socket" joint?
A. Ankle.
B. Elbow.
C. Knee.
D. Hip.
Answer: D

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NO.13 .Which of the following bones articulates proxi- mally with the sternal manubrium and distally with
the scapula and is helpful to palpate in electrode placement?
A. Scapula.
B. Sternum.
C. Clavicle.
D. Twelfth rib.
Answer: C

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NO.14 .A standard site for the measurement of circumfer- ences is the
A. Abdomen.
B. Neck.
C. Wrist.
D. Ankle.
Answer: A

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NO.15 .Who first described that a body immersed in fluid is buoyed up with a force equal to the
weight of the displaced fluid?
A. Einstein.
B. Freud.
C. Whitehead.
D. Archimedes.
Answer: D

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NO.16 .The prime movers for extension of the knee are the
A. Bicepsfemoris.
B. Bicepsbrachii.
C. Quadricepsfemoris.
D. Gastrocnemius.
Answer: C

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NO.17 .Slapping of the foot during heel strike and increased knee and hip flexion during swing are
characteristic of
A. Weakness in the gluteusmedius and minimus.
B. Weakness in the quadricepsfemoris.
C. Weakness in theplantarflexors.
D. Weakness in thedorsiflexors.
Answer: D

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NO.18 .Which type of musculoskeletal lever is most common?
A. First-class.
B. Second-class.
C. Third-class.
D. Fourth-class.
Answer: C

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NO.19 .The arm is capable of performing all of the following motions EXCEPT
A. Flexion.
B. Abduction.
C. Inversion.
D. Supination.
Answer: C

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NO.20 .A client in your exercise class has been complaining of back pain with no ridiculer symptoms. This
person has been treated medically and is now joining the exercise program to improve flexibility in
the low back. Which exercise would be most appropriate for this person to address the stated
goal?
A. Hip flexor stretch.
B. Knee-to-chest stretch.
C. Gastrocnemius stretch.
D. Lateral trunk stretch.
Answer: B

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NO.21 .Angular motion occurs when
A. A force is applied off-center to a freely- moveable object.
B. A freely-movable object moves in a straight line when a force is applied on-center.
C. An object is free to move only in a linear path.
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.22 .A baseball pitcher has been complaining of weakness in the lateral rotation motions of the
shoulder. You have been asked to evaluate him for a strengthening program. Which of the
following muscles would you have him concentrate on strengthening?
A. Subscapularis.
B. Teres major.
C. Latissimus dorsi.
D. Teres minor.
Answer: D

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NO.23 .In the organization of skeletal muscle, the muscle cell contains the contractile proteins.
Which of the following is a contractile protein?
A. Myosin.
B. Muscle fascicle.
C. Myofibril.
D. Muscle fiber.
Answer: A

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NO.24 .The law of inertia
A. States that a body at rest tends to remain at rest, whereas a body in motion tends to con-tinue
to stay in motion with consistent speed and in the same direction unless acted on by an outside
force
B. States that the velocity of a body is changed only when acted on by an additional force
C. States that the driving force of the body is doubled and that the rate of acceleration is also
doubled.
D. States that the production of any force will create another force that will be opposite and equal
to the first force.
Answer: A

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NO.25 .All of the following statements are true regarding long bones EXCEPT
A. Thediaphysis is composed of compact bone.
B. The epiphysis consists of spongy bone.
C. Most bones of the axial skeleton are of this type.
D. The central shaft encases themedullary canal.
Answer: C

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NO.26 .An abnormal curve of the spine with lateral deviation of the vertebral column is called
A. Lordosis.
B. Scoliosis.
C. Kyphosis.
D. Primary curve.
Answer: B

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NO.27 .Running is a locomotor activity similar to walking but with some differences. In comparison to
walking, running requires greater
A. Balance.
B. Muscle strength.
C. Range of motion.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.28 .The most common site used for measurement of the pulse during exercise is the
A. Popliteal.
B. Femoral.
C. Radial.
D. Dorsalis pedis.
Answer: C

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NO.29 .Which of the following is the ability of a force to cause rotation of a lever?
A. Center of gravity.
B. Base of support.
C. Torque.
D. Stability.
Answer: C

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NO.30 .rteries are large-diameter vessels that carry blood away from the heart. As they course through
the body, they progressively decrease in size until they become
A. Arterioles.
B. Anastomoses.
C. Venules.
D. Veins.
Answer: A

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PostgreSQL-CE PGCES-02 덤프자료

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시험 번호/코드: PGCES-02
시험 이름: PostgreSQL-CE (PostgreSQL CE 8 Silver)
당신이 구입하기 전에 시도
일년동안 무료 업데이트
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Q&A: 145 문항
업데이트: 2013-11-28

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NO.1 Select the correct SQL statement which concatenates strings 'ABC' and 'abc' to form 'ABCabc'.
A.SELECT 'ABC' . 'abc';
B.SELECT cat('ABC', 'abc') FROM pg_operator;
C.SELECT 'ABC' 'abc';
D.SELECT 'ABC' 'abc' FROM pg_operator;
E.SELECT 'ABC' || 'abc';
Answer:E

PostgreSQL-CE시험문제   PGCES-02 pdf   PGCES-02인증   PGCES-02

NO.2 The "sample" table consists of the following data: How many rows are returned by executing the
following SQL statement? SELECT * FROM sample WHERE v ~ 'ab';
A.0 rows
B.1 row
C.2 rows
D.3 rows
E.4 rows
Answer:C

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NO.3 The tables "t1" and "t2" are defined below. The tables "t1" and "t2" have columns "id" which are type of
INTEGER and column "name"s which are type of TEXT. t1 t2 The following SQL command was executed.
Select the number of rows in the result. SELECT * FROM t1 NATURAL FULL OUTER JOIN t2;
A.2 rows
B.3 rows
C.4 rows
D.5 rows
E.6 rows
Answer:D

PostgreSQL-CE   PGCES-02   PGCES-02최신덤프   PGCES-02   PGCES-02자격증

NO.4 Table "t1" is defined as follows: CREATE TABLE t1 (value VARCHAR(5)); A set of SQL statements were
executed in the following order. Select the number of rows that table "t1" has after execution. BEGIN;
INSERT INTO t1 VALUES ('AA'); SAVEPOINT point1; INSERT INTO t1 VALUES ('BB'); SAVEPOINT
point2; INSERT INTO t1 VALUES ('CC'); ROLLBACK TO point1; INSERT INTO t1 VALUES ('DD'); END;
A.1 row
B.2 rows
C.3 rows
D.4 rows
E.0 rows
Answer:B

PostgreSQL-CE기출문제   PGCES-02   PGCES-02

NO.5 SQL statements were executed in the following order: CREATE TABLE fmaster (id INTEGER
PRIMARY KEY, name TEXT); CREATE TABLE ftrans (id INTEGER REFERENCES fmaster (id), stat
INTEGER, date DATE); INSERT INTO fmaster VALUES (1, 'itemA'); INSERT INTO ftrans VALUES (1, 1,
CURRENT_DATE); Select two SQL statements that will generate an error when executed next.
A.INSERT INTO ftrans VALUES (1, 1, CURRENT_DATE);
B.INSERT INTO ftrans VALUES (2, 1, '2007-07-07');
C.UPDATE fmaster SET name = 'itemAX' WHERE id = 1;
D.UPDATE fmaster SET id = 100 WHERE id = 1;
E.UPDATE ftrans SET id = 200 WHERE id = 1;
Answer:A C

PostgreSQL-CE   PGCES-02인증   PGCES-02자료

NO.6 Select two transaction isolation levels supported in PostgreSQL.
A.DIRTY READ
B.READ COMMITTED
C.REPEATABLE READ
D.PHANTOM READ
E.SERIALIZABLE
Answer:B E

PostgreSQL-CE덤프   PGCES-02자료   PGCES-02   PGCES-02기출문제   PGCES-02

NO.7 Select three SQL statements which return NULL.
A.SELECT 0 = NULL;
B.SELECT NULL != NULL;
C.SELECT NULL IS NULL;
D.SELECT NULL;
E.SELECT 'null'::TEXT;
Answer:A B D

PostgreSQL-CE   PGCES-02   PGCES-02 pdf   PGCES-02기출문제

NO.8 The "animal" table consists of the following data: Select the correct result returned by executing the
following SQL statement: SELECT name FROM animal ORDER BY weight DESC LIMIT 2 OFFSET 1;
A.A syntax error will occur.
Answer:A

PostgreSQL-CE   PGCES-02   PGCES-02   PGCES-02

NO.9 Select two suitable statements regarding creating a new table.
A.There is no upper limit to the number of columns in a table.
B.A newly created table is empty and has 0 rows.
C.You can only use alphabetic characters for a table name.
D.The row name must be within 16 characters.
E.The SQL 'CREATE TABLE' statement is used to create a new table.
Answer:B E

PostgreSQL-CE pdf   PGCES-02인증   PGCES-02덤프

NO.10 Select two incorrect statements concerning PostgreSQL license.
A.It can be used freely.
B.It can be duplicated freely.
C.It can be freely redistributed.
D.Developers are responsible for its maintenance support.
E.Developers are only responsible for handling its crucial faults.
Answer:D E

PostgreSQL-CE기출문제   PGCES-02자격증   PGCES-02   PGCES-02   PGCES-02최신덤프

NO.11 The table "score" is defined as follows: gid | score -----+------ 1 | 70 1 | 60 2 | 100 3 | 80 3 | 50 The
following query was executed. Select the number of rows in the result. SELECT gid, max(score) FROM
score GROUP BY gid HAVING max(score) > 60;
A.1 row
B.2 rows
C.3 rows
D.4 rows
E.5 rows
Answer:C

PostgreSQL-CE dump   PGCES-02   PGCES-02자료

NO.12 Table "t1" is defined below. Table "t1" has a column "id" of type INTEGER, and a column "name" of
type TEXT. t1: The following SQL is executed while client "A" is connected. BEGIN; SELECT * FROM t1
WHERE id = 2 FOR UPDATE; SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE id = 1 FOR UPDATE; -- (*) While the second
'SELECT' statement, shown with (*), is being executed, a separate client "B" connects and executes the
following SQL. Select the correct statement about the execution results. UPDATE t1 SET name = 'turtle'
WHERE id = 2; Note: the default transaction isolation level is set to "read committed".
A.The update process for client "B" is blocked until the current connection for client "A" is finished.
B.The update process for client "B" is blocked until the current transaction for client "A" is finished.
C.The 'UPDATE' process for client "B" proceeds regardless of the condition of client "A".
D.The process of client "B" immediately generates an error.
E.The processes for both clients are blocked, and an error stating that a deadlock has been detected is
generated.
Answer:B

PostgreSQL-CE시험문제   PGCES-02최신덤프   PGCES-02   PGCES-02   PGCES-02덤프   PGCES-02

NO.13 Select two suitable statements regarding the data types of PostgreSQL.
A.One field can handle up to 1GB of data.
B.'n' in CHARACTER(n) represents the number of bytes.
C.Only the INTEGER type can be declared as an array.
D.There is a non-standard PostgreSQL data type, called Geometric data type, which handles
2-dimensional data.
E.A large object data type can be used to store data of unlimited size.
Answer:A D

PostgreSQL-CE   PGCES-02   PGCES-02   PGCES-02   PGCES-02 dump

NO.14 A table named "sample" is defined as below. Select two statements which will generate a constraint
error. CREATE TABLE sample ( i INTEGER PRIMARY KEY, j INTEGER, CHECK ( i > 0 AND j < 0 ) );
A.INSERT INTO sample VALUES (1, 0);
B.INSERT INTO sample VALUES (2, -2);
C.INSERT INTO sample VALUES (3, NULL);
D.INSERT INTO sample VALUES (NULL, -4);
E.INSERT INTO sample VALUES (5, -5);
Answer:A D

PostgreSQL-CE   PGCES-02 dump   PGCES-02자료   PGCES-02

NO.15 The "sample" table consists of the following data: How many rows are returned by executing the
following SQL statement? SELECT DISTINCT ON (data) * FROM sample;
A.2 rows
B.3 rows
C.4 rows
D.5 rows
E.6 rows
Answer:B

PostgreSQL-CE최신덤프   PGCES-02   PGCES-02 pdf   PGCES-02

NO.16 Select two suitable statements about major version upgrades of PostgreSQL from below.
A.You can use the databases of the old major version.
B.To use the data from the old version, you only need to replace the program.
C.To use the data from the old version, you need to conduct a backup and restore.
D.There is a possibility of configuration parameter changes after major version upgrades.
E.Upgrade scripts can be executed while the old version of PostgreSQL is running.
Answer:C D

PostgreSQL-CE기출문제   PGCES-02   PGCES-02덤프   PGCES-02

NO.17 Select an incorrect statement regarding the following SQL statement. Note that "user_view" is a view.
CREATE OR REPLACE RULE rule_1 AS ON UPDATE TO user_view DO INSTEAD NOTHING;
A.It is defining a rule "rule_1".
B.It will replace "rule_1" if it already exists.
C.Executing 'UPDATE user_view' will no longer output errors.
D.When executing 'UPDATE user_view', data is updated in the table that is the origin of the view.
E.'DROP RULE rule_1 ON user_view' deletes the above definition.
Answer:D

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NO.18 PostgreSQL can use an index to access a table. Select two incorrect statements about indexes.
A.An index is created by 'CREATE INDEX', and deleted by 'DROP INDEX'.
B.By using an index effectively, searching and sorting performs faster.
C.There are B-tree, Hash, R-tree and GiST index types.
D.By creating an index, performance always improves.
E.Creating an unused index does not affect the performance of a database at all.
Answer:D E

PostgreSQL-CE인증   PGCES-02   PGCES-02자료   PGCES-02최신덤프   PGCES-02자료

NO.19 Select the most suitable statement about PostgreSQL from below.
A.PostgreSQL is a card-type database management system.
B.PostgreSQL is a hierarchical database management system.
C.PostgreSQL is a network-type database management system.
D.PostgreSQL is an XML database management system.
E.PostgreSQL is a relational database management system.
Answer:E

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NO.20 Select two correct descriptions about views.
A.A view is created by 'DECLARE VIEW', and deleted by 'DROP VIEW'.
B.A view is a virtual table which does not exist.
C.A view is created to simplify complicated queries.
D.You can create a view with the same name as already existing tables.
E.A view only exists while the postmaster is running, and is deleted when the postmaster stops.
Answer:B C

PostgreSQL-CE   PGCES-02기출문제   PGCES-02덤프   PGCES-02   PGCES-02기출문제

NO.21 Select two incorrect statements regarding 'DOMAIN'.
A.When defining a domain, you can add a default value and constraints to the original data.
B.Domain is a namespace existing between databases and objects such as tables.
C.A domain is created by 'CREATE DOMAIN'.
D.A domain can be used as a column type when defining a table.
E.To define a domain, both input and output functions are required.
Answer:B E

PostgreSQL-CE   PGCES-02   PGCES-02   PGCES-02   PGCES-02

NO.22 Select two suitable statements regarding the following SQL statement: CREATE TRIGGER trigger_1
AFTER UPDATE ON sales FOR EACH ROW EXECUTE PROCEDURE write_log();
A.It is defining a trigger "trigger_1".
B.Every time 'UPDATE' is executed on the "sales" table, the "write_log" function is called once.
C.The "write_log" function is called before 'UPDATE' takes place.
D.'UPDATE' is not executed if "write_log" returns NULL.
E.'DROP TRIGGER trigger_1 ON sales;' deletes the defined trigger.
Answer:A E

PostgreSQL-CE   PGCES-02덤프   PGCES-02 pdf   PGCES-02인증

NO.23 Select two suitable statements about sequences.
A.A sequence always returns a 4-byte INTEGER type value, so the maximum value is 2147483647.
B.A sequence is defined by 'CREATE SEQUENCE', and deleted by 'DROP SEQUENCE'.
C.Although the "nextval" function is called during a transaction, it will have no effect if that transaction is
rolled back.
D.A sequence always generates 0 or consecutive positive numbers.
E.A sequence number can be set by calling the "setval" function.
Answer:B E

PostgreSQL-CE덤프   PGCES-02   PGCES-02

NO.24 The following is the result of executing the createlang command which is installed with PostgreSQL.
$ createlang -U postgres --list mydb Procedural Languages Name | Trusted? ---------+--------- plpgsql | yes
Select two correct statements from below.
A.The procedural language plpgsql is installed in the database mydb using the above command.
B.The procedural language plpgsql can be used in the database mydb.
C.plpgsql is a trusted language, so it can execute the OS commands on the server side.
D.plpgsql is a trusted language, so it can read/write OS files on the server side.
E.plpgsql is a safe language with restricted operations.
Answer:B E

PostgreSQL-CE   PGCES-02   PGCES-02

NO.25 Four SQL statements were executed in the following order. CREATE TABLE foo (bar INT); ALTER
TABLE foo ALTER bar TYPE BIGINT; ALTER TABLE foo ADD baz VARCHAR(5); ALTER TABLE foo
DROP bar; Select two SQL statements that generate an error when executed.
A.INSERT INTO foo VALUES ('12345');
B.INSERT INTO foo VALUES ('5000000000');
C.INSERT INTO foo VALUES ('ABC');
D.INSERT INTO foo VALUES (2000000000);
E.INSERT INTO foo VALUES (NULL);
Answer:B D

PostgreSQL-CE덤프   PGCES-02덤프   PGCES-02   PGCES-02

NO.26 Select one incorrect statement concerning the relational data model.
A.It expresses the real world in a collection of 2-dimensional tables called a relation.
B.It is a model based on set theory.
C.It has a logical structure independent of physical data structure.
D.It is made up of a multiple stage hierarchy where each of the set elements has parent child relationships.
E.It is a model that was proposed by E.F. Codd in 1970.
Answer:D

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NO.27 The following SQL statements were executed using psql. Select the appropriate statement about the
result. LISTEN sign_v; BEGIN; NOTIFY sign_v; COMMIT; LISTEN sign_v;
A.At the point that 'NOTIFY sign_v' is executed, a message that starts with "Asynchronous notification
'sign_v' received" is output.
B.At the point that 'COMMIT' is executed, a message that starts with "Asynchronous notification 'sign_v'
received" is output.
C.At the point that 'SELECT * FROM pg_user;" is executed, a message that starts with "Asynchronous
notification 'sign_v' received" is output.
D.When 'LISTEN sign_v' is executed for the second time, a message that starts with "Asynchronous
notification 'sign_v' received" is output.
E.The message "Asynchronous notification 'sign_v' received" is not received while in this connection.
Answer:B

PostgreSQL-CE최신덤프   PGCES-02   PGCES-02   PGCES-02   PGCES-02

NO.28 Given the following two table definitions, select one SQL statement which will cause an error. CREATE
TABLE sample1 (id INTEGER, data TEXT); CREATE TABLE sample2 (id INTEGER);
A.SELECT id AS data, data FROM sample1;
B.SELECT id, id FROM sample1;
C.SELECT s1.id, s2.id FROM sample1 AS s1, sample1 AS s2;
D.SELECT s1.id, s2.id FROM sample1 s1, sample2 s2;
E.SELECT s1.id, s2.data FROM sample1 s1, sample2 s2;
Answer:E

PostgreSQL-CE기출문제   PGCES-02인증   PGCES-02덤프   PGCES-02시험문제   PGCES-02   PGCES-02 dump

NO.29 Select the most suitable statement about the PostgreSQL license from below.
A.PostgreSQL is distributed under the GPL license.
B.PostgreSQL is distributed under the PostgreSQL license.
C.PostgreSQL is distributed under the LGPL license.
D.PostgreSQL is distributed under the BSD license.
E.PostgreSQL is distributed under the X11(MIT) license.
Answer:D

PostgreSQL-CE dump   PGCES-02   PGCES-02자료

NO.30 The table "custom" is defined below. The "id" column and "introducer" column are of INTEGER type,
and the "email" column is of TEXT type. id | email | introducer ----+----------------+----------- 2 |
aaa@example.com | 1 3 | bbb@example.com | 2 4 | ccc@example.com | 2 Three SQL statements were
executed in the following order: INSERT INTO custom SELECT max(id) 1, 'ddd@example.com', 4 FROM
custom; UPDATE custom SET introducer = 999 WHERE email = 'bbb@example.com'; DELETE FROM
custom WHERE introducer NOT IN (SELECT id FROM custom); Select the number of rows in the
"custom" table after the execution.
A.0 rows
B.1 row
C.2 rows
D.3 rows
E.4 rows
Answer:C

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시험 번호/코드: BCP-810
시험 이름: BlackBerry (Developing Applications for the BlackBerry Solution)
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Q&A: 125 문항
업데이트: 2013-11-28

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NO.1 A BlackBerry device application collects data and needs to merge it with data on a server before
pushing out an updated summary page. Which of the following collection of tools would be most
appropriate for testing this application? (Choose one.)
A. A BlackBerry MDS-CS Simulator and a real BlackBerry device
B. A database server, a proxy, and a real BlackBerry device
C. A BlackBerry ESS Simulator and a real BlackBerry device
D. A web server and a BlackBerry Device Simulator
E. A BlackBerry MDS-CS Simulator and a BlackBerry Device Simulator
Answer: E

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NO.2 Which two of the following transport routes must go through the wireless network? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. WAP
C. BlackBerry Internet Service
D. Direct TCP
E. Wi-Fi
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which method does RIM recommend for managing multiple screen displays within a BlackBerry device
application? (Choose one.)
A. Organize the screens into a tabbed panel
B. Push full sized screens to the top of a stack
C. Generate pop-up screens as required
D. Use re-sizable screens that can be collapsed and restored
E. Use a mixture of transparent and opaque screens
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which three of the following debugging features are supported in BlackBerry IDEs? (Choose three.)
A. Get a variablevalueGet a variable? value
B. Change a variablevalueChange a variable? value
C. Hot code replacement
D. Arbitrary code execution
E. Creating new types
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 Which tool should be used to facilitate application test cases by simulating BlackBerry device user
interaction with the BlackBerry Device Simulator? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry MDS-CS Simulator
B. Javaloader
C. Controller Command
D. ESS
E. BlackBerry Desktop Manager
Answer: C

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NO.6 A developer wants to distribute an application OTA using the BlackBerry Browser. Which
application file that provides information about the application needs to be placed on a web server?
(Choose one.)
A. JAD
B. ALX
C. COD
D. JAR
E. JDE
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two of the following mechanisms are available to toggle content protection on the BlackBerry
device? (Choose two.)
A. IT policy
B. API call
C. BlackBerry Device setting
D. Desktop Manager setting
E. Application control
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 A technician needs a field service application that will support receipt of work orders and determine a
customer location. What are two advantages of using a Java application over a web application in this
situation? (Choose two.)
A. Java applications can access a server application over the intranet
B. Java applications run consistently faster than web applications
C. Java applications can display a BlackBerry Maps Field within the application
D. Java applications require a local client
E. Java applications can operate while out of coverage
Answer: C,E

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NO.9 If an application is built using BlackBerry JDE version 4.6, on which of the following BlackBerry Device
Software versions can the application be executed? (Choose one.)
A. Any BlackBerry Device Software version
B. BlackBerry Device Software 4.6 and below
C. Only BlackBerry Device Software 4.6
D. BlackBerry Device Software 4.6 and above
E. All versions above BlackBerry Device Software 4.6
Answer: D

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NO.10 Application X must receive push updates from a public server every morning. The application must
display a notification to the BlackBerry device user when the new update is received. Which two of the
following application approaches will support these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Web application with BlackBerry Internet Service browsing
B. BlackBerry Widget with BlackBerry Internet Service Push APIs
C. BlackBerry Widget with BlackBerry Enterprise Server Push APIs
D. BlackBerry Java application with BlackBerry Internet Service Push APIs
E. BlackBerry Java application with BlackBerry Internet Service browsing
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 Which of the following situations could interrupt a wireless network data connection on a BlackBerry
device? (Choose one.)
A. AWi-Fi connection is established
B. Removable media is removed
C. A Bluetooth connection is established
D. A GPS radio is activated
E. A phone call is initiated or received
Answer: E

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NO.12 Application X must track field service agents, report their locations back to the intranet application
server, and push alerts for new jobs during the day. Given the scenario, which three of the following
components are required for application X to function properly? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. BlackBerry Internet Service
C. A GPS enabled BlackBerry device
D. BlackBerry Internet Service Push APIs
E. BlackBerry Mobile Data System Connection Service
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.13 Which two of the following simulators should be used to simulate the interaction between a web
application on a BlackBerry device and a web server that is behind a corporate firewall? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Firewall Simulator
B. BlackBerry Screen Simulator
C. BlackBerry Device Simulator
D. BlackBerry MDS-CS Simulator
E. BlackBerry ESS Simulator
Answer: C,D

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NO.14 Which of the following can receive PIN messages? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry devices with BlackBerry Messenger
B. Any cellular phone
C. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. BlackBerry Internet Service
E. Any BlackBerry device
Answer: E

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NO.15 Which of the following file types is needed by the IDE to locate the source code for a COD
file-packaged application? (Choose one.)
A. RAPC
B. JAR
C. DEBUG
D. CSL
E. JAD
Answer: C

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NO.16 What are two ways to create an application UI that is consistent with the native BlackBerry UI? (Choose
two.)
A. Provide context-specific action menus on each page
B. Make use of the banner to present interactive information
C. Inherit default behaviors by using or extending existing UI components
D. Use BlackBerry UI construction tool to build the new UI from an existing template
E. Specify the font for the application screens
Answer: A,C

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NO.17 Which file type may be signed using the RIM Signature Tool and Code Signing Keys? (Choose one.)
A. COD
B. JAR
C. EXE
D. JAD
E. ALX
Answer: A

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NO.18 In order to write a BlackBerry device application that uses a complex custom user interface, which two
of the following IDEs could be used? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Plug-in for Visual Studio
B. BlackBerry Java Development Environment
C. BlackBerry JDE Plug-in for Eclipse
D. BlackBerry Web Development Plug-in for Eclipse
E. BlackBerry Web Development Plug-in for Visual Studio
Answer: B,C

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NO.19 Application X needs to update the BlackBerry device user? address book with information from a
social networking site. It will also need to allow the user to tag images taken using the Camera application
and upload them to the site. Which two of the following application approaches will support these
requirements? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Widget
B. Web application
C. BlackBerry Applet
D. BlackBerry Java application
E. BlackBerry MDS-CS
Answer: A,D

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NO.20 What would cause a signed application to become unsigned? (Choose one.)
A. The application is re-compiled
B. The signature expires
C. The application is installed too many times
D. The evoke Key button of the Signature Tool is pressed
E. The JAD and ALX files are deleted
Answer: A

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