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시험 번호/코드: DC0-200
시험 이름: Dell (Certified Server Professional Exam)

It 업계 중 많은 분들이 인증시험에 관심이 많은 인사들이 많습니다.it산업 중 더 큰 발전을 위하여 많은 분들이Dell DC0-200를 선택하였습니다.인증시험은 패스를 하여야 자격증취득이 가능합니다.그리고 무엇보다도 통행증을 받을 수 잇습니다.Dell DC0-200은 그만큼 아주 어려운 시험입니다. 그래도Dell DC0-200인증을 신청하여야 좋은 선택입니다.우리는 매일매일 자신을 업그레이드 하여야만 이 경쟁이 치열한 사회에서 살아남을 수 있기 때문입니다.

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NO.1 Which three statements are true about installing the Intel drivers and utilities that allow teaming in
Windows 2000? (Choose three .)
A. You must install the ProSet Utility.
B. You must install the Intel driver using floppy diskettes.
C. Loading Windows 2000 using the DSA CD-ROM loads the drivers and ProSet Utility.
D. If you install the adapters after you have installed the OS, you can get the drivers from the Intel
Network Drivers CD.
E. If you install the adapters after you have installed the OS, you can get the ProSet Utility from the Intel
ProSet Utility CD.
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 What is the correct NIC teaming for the Intel Proprietary Method to accomplish fault tolerance?
A. AFT
B. ALB
C. ATF
D. SLB
Answer: A

Dell   DC0-200 pdf   DC0-200인증   DC0-200기출문제

NO.3 What is the intended mounting location for a 0U rack mount device in a Dell rack?
A. at the top of the rack
B. on the back doors of the rack
C. in any of the 42U spaces available
D. in the mounting holes in the side walls of the rack
Answer: D

Dell   DC0-200   DC0-200덤프   DC0-200

NO.4 How many PowerEdge 1650 servers can be installed in a Dell 42U rack that already has two
PowerEdge 2650 servers, a PowerEdge 6650 server, and a 1U keyboard and monitor drawer?
A. 31
B. 32
C. 33
D. 34
Answer: C

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NO.5 You need to install Intel NIC teaming for Windows 2000 and you do not have access to the Internet.
From what two sources can you obtain the PROSet software? (Choose two.)
A. Intel Network Drivers CD
B. Dell Server Assistant (DSA)
C. Dell Network Applications CD
D. Windows 2000 Installation CD
Answer: AB

Dell   DC0-200   DC0-200   DC0-200

NO.6 You want to install Windows 2000 Server and Dell-validated drivers for your factory-installed devices
using the Dell Server Assistant CD. From which location should you launch the Dell Server Assistant?
A. boot to the Dell Server Assistant CD after installing Windows 2000
B. autorun the CD from the Windows desktop after installing Windows 2000
C. boot to the Dell Server Assistant CD and have your Windows CD available
D. use the Dell Server Assistant to create a Utility Partition and launch the installation from the Utility
Partition
Answer: C

Dell인증   DC0-200덤프   DC0-200

NO.7 What is the default path and name of the logging file if the Message Logging option is selected when
running diagnostics?
A. A: RESULT.txt
B. C: RESULTS.txt
C. C: DELLTEST.txt
D. A: DELLTESTS.txt
Answer: A

Dell최신덤프   DC0-200시험문제   DC0-200   DC0-200

NO.8 Which benefit does Link Aggregation provide, as used by Intel NICs in PowerEdge servers?
A. provides load-balanced fault tolerance to the network
B. assures that if one adapter fails, the server remains available to the network
C. combines multiple adapters into one channel, providing greater bandwidth for network traffic
D. allows multiple adapters to share the network load, preventing one adapter from being overloaded
Answer: C

Dell자료   DC0-200   DC0-200덤프

NO.9 Which two components can be installed in the 0U space found in Dell racks? (Choose two .)
A. Dell UPS
B. Dell PDU
C. Dell flat panel monitor
D. Dell Dual-Power Grid Switch
Answer: BD

Dell   DC0-200기출문제   DC0-200덤프   DC0-200 pdf

NO.10 Which tool can be used to create a Utility Partition?
A. DOS fdisk Utility
B. Dell Server Assistant CD
C. Dell OpenManage Array Manager
D. Dell OpenManage IT Assistant CD
Answer: B

Dell   DC0-200   DC0-200

NO.11 Which two features are found on both 24U and 42U Dell racks? (Choose two.)
A. split rear door for cable access
B. diagnostic LCD panel on the front door
C. integrated redundant 1000 watt power supplies
D. 0U space that can be used for components other than servers and storage
Answer: AD

Dell기출문제   DC0-200   DC0-200   DC0-200자격증   DC0-200인증

NO.12 Which three hard drive partitions must be defined during the automated Linux installation process?
(Choose three.)
A. root
B. logs
C. boot
D. data
E. swap
Answer: ACE

Dell   DC0-200   DC0-200기출문제   DC0-200 dumps

NO.13 You select the RAID Configuration Utility from the Utility Partition menu. This takes you to the _____.
A. system setup
B. PERC BIOS
C. CERC BIOS
D. Array Manager
Answer: B

Dell기출문제   DC0-200   DC0-200

NO.14 You are about to begin the installation of Windows 2000 Server on your PowerEdge server . As you
inspect the System Setup Utility, you notice that the Asset Tag field is blank. What are two ways you can
add the correct asset tag into the BIOS? (Choose two.)
A. Flashing the ESM to the latest revision automatically updates the Asset Tag field.
B. Flashing the BIOS to the latest revision automatically updates the Asset Tag field.
C. You create the Asset Tag Utility Diskette from the DSA CD and use it to update the Asset Tag field.
D. You download the Asset Tag Utility from premiersupport.dell.com and use it to update the Asset Tag
Field.
E. After installing Windows 2000, you use the Asset Manager application from the Dell group in control
panel to update the Asset Tag field.
Answer: CD

Dell   DC0-200   DC0-200 pdf

NO.15 Which statement is true about using the Save feature of BASP?
A. It is only available in Windows 2000.
B. It saves a configuration as an executable file.
C. It lets you transfer teaming configurations to other servers.
D. It is used to install and configure the Broadcom Ethernet Controller driver.
Answer: C

Dell시험문제   DC0-200   DC0-200

NO.16 Which two operations can be performed with the DSA CD? (Choose two.)
A. run system diagnostics on your server
B. create Windows 2000 driver/utilities diskette(s)
C. create NetWare 5.1/6.0 driver/utilities diskette(s)
D. change the Dell Service Tag via the Service Tag Utility
Answer: BC

Dell dump   DC0-200   DC0-200시험문제   DC0-200   DC0-200최신덤프

NO.17 Which four steps are necessary for creating a team in Windows 2000 using BASP? (Choose four.)
A. set the media type for the adapters
B. create a team and assign it a name
C. select the adapters from the list to add to the team
D. select the Broadcom Advanced Server Program Driver
E. configure the IP address and subnet mask for the team F. enter the path and filename of the
configuration to be saved
Answer: BCDE

Dell   DC0-200기출문제   DC0-200시험문제   DC0-200   DC0-200

NO.18 You have just installed W2K on your server and you cannot get the server to see your local network.
What can you do to diagnose network connectivity? (Choose three.)
A. verify that the server is configured to use DNS
B. verify that the cable plugged into your server is not a cross-over cable
C. verify that the subnet address is the same as the rest of the working devices on your LAN
D. verify that if attached to a switch and using VLANs, your port is in the proper configuration
Answer: BCD

Dell   DC0-200   DC0-200

NO.19 What happens when you specify a Preferred Primary Adapter in Windows 2000 for an AFT NIC team?
A. You specify which adaptor will take the entire load. The other NICs will be used only when the
Preferred Primary fails.
B. You specify the desired card for all outgoing traffic for the team. The other members will still accept
incoming packets.
C. You specify the desired card for all incoming traffic for the team. The other members will still transmit
outgoing packets.
D. You specify which adaptor will take the load until it is saturated, then the other members will start
accepting packets until the Preferred Primary is just below the saturation point.
Answer: A

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NO.20 You are configuring network teaming on a PowerEdge server. The server has Windows 2000 installed
and you do not know what network adapters are in the system. Without physically opening the chassis,
what are two ways to see which network adapters are installed using the operating system? (Choose
two.)
A. type ifconfig -a at a command prompt; on the description line, the manufacturer and device type will be
named
B. type ipconfig /all at the command prompt; on the description line, the manufacturer and device type will
be named
C. right-click My Computer, select Manage, left-click Device Manager, expand Network Adapters, and
view installed adapters
D. right-click Network Neighborhood, select Properties, double-click Internet Protocol (TCP/IP), and view
protocol-bound adapters
Answer: BC

Dell   DC0-200   DC0-200   DC0-200최신덤프

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시험 번호/코드: 225-030
시험 이름: CompTIA (CDIA+ Certification)

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NO.1 All of the following are inputs to project schedule development EXCEPT:
A. change requests.
B. lead- and lag-times.
C. resource requirements.
D. resource availability.
Answer:A

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NO.2 A business requires its employees to have access to internal documents via the Internet. Which of the
following technologies will allow access to those documents and maintain security of the connection?
A. Checksumming
B. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
C. Watermarking
D. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Answer: D

CompTIA pdf   225-030   225-030자격증   225-030덤프

NO.3 A customer is performing incremental backups nightly. At the end of the month they review a list of
documents that have reached their end of life and determine if they can be destroyed. Which of the
following BEST describes the records storage management process?
A. The customer does not have a records management process.
B. The customer has an informal records management process.
C. The customer has a formal records storage management process.
D. The customer has a document capture process.
Answer: C

CompTIA pdf   225-030   225-030   225-030

NO.4 A document that would address the repurposing or reorganization of staff, the benefits of a new
system, and the increased market value of staff due to new skills is called a:
A. cultural change management plan.
B. project management plan.
C. human resource plan.
D. project objectives document.
Answer:A

CompTIA   225-030인증   225-030   225-030

NO.5 A proposed scanner uses TIFF Group 4 compression. What will be the average size of a black and
white A4 sized
(8.5
inches x 11 inches or 216 mm x 279 mm) document at 600 dpi (24 dots per mm)?
A.
50 K bytes
B.
180 K bytes
C.
210 K bytes
D.
380 K bytes
Answer: C

CompTIA   225-030   225-030자격증

NO.6 The Human Resources department receives applications: 10% by fax, 30% by e-mail, and 60% by mail.
All applications are two-sided forms. Applications received by mail must be scanned into the Document
Management System (DMS). If 300 applications are received by the Human Resources department per
week, how many images will be scanned per week?
A. 300
B. 360
C. 400
D. 600
Answer: B

CompTIA   225-030   225-030최신덤프   225-030

NO.7 A company would like to scan documents for disaster recovery purposes. Which system would be most
appropriate?
A. Knowledge Management System (KMS)
B. Image Management System (IMS)
C. Electronic Document Management System (EDMS)
D. Storage Area Network (SAN)
Answer: B

CompTIA dumps   225-030   225-030자료

NO.8 A member of the implementation team discovers that the software vendor is issuing a new version.
Which one of the following should be done?
A. Upgrade after the project completion date
B. Research the new product to understand its features
C. Inform the business sponsors
D. Notify the Project Manager
Answer: D

CompTIA   225-030시험문제   225-030시험문제   225-030

NO.9 The proposed project plan requires that documents must have a file plan and track all access
attempts. What MUST be part of this solution?
A. A records management system
B. A storage management system
C. A scan subsystem
D. Annotation and redaction capabilities
Answer:A

CompTIA   225-030   225-030   225-030자격증
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NO.10 While validating requirements, it becomes apparent that multiple solutions could fit the customers
needs. The consultant should:
A. pick the solution they feel is best suited.
B. choose the least expensive option in terms of price to help win the business.
C. present the alternatives to the customer for discussion.
D. pick the most feature rich solution.
Answer: C

CompTIA최신덤프   225-030   225-030

NO.11 A client wishes to establish a Document Management System (DMS) for handling a large volume of
standard documents to be scanned. The client wants to enable search capabilities for certain information
on the documents. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate solution?
A. Form recognition and entire document search
B. Form recognition and index search
C. Zonal OCR and entire document search
D. Zonal OCR and index search
Answer: D

CompTIA인증   225-030   225-030   225-030인증

NO.12 During discovery phase interviews with key personnel, a previously unknown critical document type is
identified. What should the next step be?
A. Ignore the document type in order to avoid scope creep
B. Include the document type in the project scope
C. Document the discovery and complete a change order request form
D. Discuss alternatives to including the document type
Answer: B

CompTIA pdf   225-030   225-030   225-030   225-030자료

NO.13 All of the following are routing features of production workflow EXCEPT:
A. work monitoring.
B. support for multiple queues based on work type.
C. sorting queues in date order.
D. pending or holding items.
Answer:A

CompTIA   225-030   225-030 dumps

NO.14 A company is required to create a training class for a proposed Electronic Document Management
System (EDMS). All of the following factors would be considered for end-user training EXCEPT:
A. the assessed skill level of individuals.
B. the document management needs of the organization.
C. the architecture of the network.
D. the current manual processes regarding documents.
Answer: C

CompTIA dumps   225-030 dumps   225-030   225-030

NO.15 Many of the documents to be scanned by a customer are sales invoices with a yellow background. A
feature of the proposed scanning solution should include:
A. image enhancement.
B. deskew.
C. color dropout.
D. color enhancement.
Answer: C

CompTIA   225-030   225-030자격증   225-030

NO.16 A local library keeps many important documents relating to the historical landmarks in town. The
documents consist of blueprints, photographs, and newspaper articles. The library wants to capture the
documents electronically so they can be viewed online. The first concern of the person capturing the
documents would be the:
A. color of the documents.
B. age and physical condition of the documents.
C. volume of the documents on file.
D. number of file cabinets.
Answer: B

CompTIA   225-030기출문제   225-030   225-030

NO.17 Which of the following are elements of a communication plan?
A. Ethernet and TCP / IP
B. Project charter and project plan
C. E-mail and FTP
D. All-hands meetings and intranet postings
Answer: D

CompTIA   225-030   225-030   225-030

NO.18 A company has a single call center. It will introduce new products that will increase customer service
calls. The company wants to handle an increasing number of calls without adding personnel or
decreasing customer service levels. Which aspect of workflow technology should it consider?
A. Pre-retrieval of customer folders
B. Sorting of documents in a work queue
C. Load balancing
D. Work monitoring
Answer:A

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NO.19 What is a disadvantage of scanning all images at the highest resolution possible?
A. Higher expense
B. Lower quality
C. Small file size
D. Compatibility issues
Answer:A

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NO.20 When reviewing potential software choices to propose to a client, the MOST important aspect to
consider from the following is:
A. the price of the potential software solution.
B. how well the software meets the clients needs.
C. the cost of the annual maintenance agreement of the software.
D. how robust the software is.
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: N10-004
시험 이름: CompTIA (CompTIA Network+ (2009 Edition) )

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NO.1 A network technician, working with a large business of 500 employees, decides to configure a server
to handle IP addressing. Which of the following would BEST allow for this setup?
A. Address routing protocol
B. Port mirroring
C. Static addresses
D. DHCP addresses
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is a reason to use dynamic DNS?
A. The host IP address is not listed in the firewall.
B. The host IP address is assigned by DHCP.
C. Static routes cannot be used on the host network.
D. A third-party certificate is being used.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following ports is the default telnet port?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
Answer: D

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NO.4 A bridge handles frames at which of the following layers of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Session
C. Transport
D. Data Link
Answer: D

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NO.5 The protocols that use a three way handshake to transfer information can be found within which layer of
the OSI model?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5
Answer: C

CompTIA   N10-004   N10-004

NO.6 Which of the following can be configured to restrict specific ports and IP addresses from accessing the
internal network? (Select TWO).
A. Layer 2 switch
B. MAC address filtering
C. ACLs
D. IIS server
E. Port scanner
F. Firewall
Answer: CF

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NO.7 A network technician is attempting to map a FQDN to an internal server at the address of 10.0.0.15
without NAT/PAT. Which of the following is the reason this will ultimately not work?
A. This is a private address which cannot be seen by external users.
B. The address does not have the appropriate subnet mask assigned.
C. This is a public address which can only be seen by internal users.
D. This is a private address which can only be seen by external users.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A user is unable to access the company website on a laptop. A network technician verifies that the user
can access other Internet pages. According to network troubleshooting methodology, which of the
following steps should be taken NEXT?
A. Remotely connect to the user's laptop and review the network configuration settings.
B. Ping the web server from inside the network to ensure it is still up and running.
C. Check to make sure the company's website is accessible from the Internet.
D. Ensure the Ethernet cable is securely plugged into the user's laptop.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following ports would have to be allowed through a firewall to allow SNMP traffic to pass
on its default port? (Select TWO).
A. 22
B. 23
C. 143
D. 161
E. 162
F. 8080
Answer: DE

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NO.10 Which of the following would be used to test out the security of a specific network by allowing it to
receive security attacks?
A. Honeynet
B. Honeypot
C. Vulnerability scanner
D. Network based IDS
Answer: A

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NO.11 A company is about to install a second network connection with a new ISP. Which of the following
routing protocols is the BEST choice?
A. IS-IS
B. BGP
C. OSPF
D. RIP
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following protocols is commonly used for VoIP technology?
A. Telnet
B. SMTP
C. SIP
D. SNMP
Answer: C

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NO.13 A network technician blocks access to ports 25, 110, and 143 on the firewall. Which of the following
application services will be blocked due to this?
A. Email sending and receiving
B. Domain Name Service
C. FTP access to external servers
D. Remote desktop access
Answer: A

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NO.14 The network technician is troubleshooting a network issue by implementing a new security device. After
installing and configuring the device, which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT?
A. Verify full system functionality.
B. Identify the main problem and question the user.
C. Document their findings, actions, and outcomes.
D. Escalate the issue to upper management.
Answer: A

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NO.15 A network technician is troubleshooting a problem and has just established a plan of action to resolve
the problem. Which of the following is the NEXT step in the troubleshooting methodology?
A. Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures.
B. Implement the solution or escalate as necessary.
C. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
D. Establish a theory of probable cause (e.g. question the obvious).
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following metrics indentifies the number of connections that is between two devices?
A. Hop count
B. MTU
C. Latency
D. Bandwidth
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following layers of the OSI model maps to the Network Interface layer of the TCP stack?
(Select TWO).
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Data Link
D. Network
E. Transport
Answer: AC

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NO.18 Which of the following authentication solutions also provides AAA and uses TCP.?
A. TACACS+
B. Kerberos
C. RADIUS
D. RAS
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following is the broadcast address for a network defined as 192.168.0.0/24?
A. 192.168.0.255
B. 192.168.0.1
C. 192.168.0.0
D. 192.168.0.253
Answer: A

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NO.20 hen the use of a smart card, pin number, and pass phrase is required to login to a system, which of the
following types of authentication is being used?
A. Single sign on
B. PKI
C. Two factor authentication
D. Multi-factor authentication
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: PK1-003
시험 이름: CompTIA (CompTIA Project+ Beta Exam)

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NO.1 Which of the following is the purpose of a Pareto diagram?
A. To show the sequence in which work will be performed
B. To create the process that will complete the project
C. To determine the critical path
D. To direct team efforts to the areas that will have the most impact
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer does not have the staff available to complete a particular project, but anticipates that more
staff will be hired in the future. While the project budget has been established, the project scope has not.
Which of the following is the BEST action for the project manager to take?
A. Start the project immediately because the funding is available.
B. Start the important project; the project manager can define the scope.
C. Do not start the project because the customer has not provided enough resources.
D. Do not start the project until the scope has been clearly defined.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Who has the MOST influence over project decisions?
A. Project team members
B. End users
C. Key stakeholders
D. Project manager
Answer: C

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NO.4 A project manager is presented with a change request for an ongoing project. Which of the following
would be the FIRST action?
A. Update the project plan to accommodate the changes.
B. Perform an impact analysis.
C. Organize a stakeholder meeting to review the changes.
D. Change the project scope to reflect the change request.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A project manager is in a projectized organization managing a particular project. A department manager
has repeatedly requested a change to the scope of the project which was previously denied. The project
is currently behind schedule. Which of the following would be the BEST way to deal with the managers
repeated request?
A. Request the manager fill out a formal request for the change and file it with the project management
office.
B. Have a team member meet with the manager so the project can stay on schedule.
C. Ask the project sponsor to respond to the department manager.
D. Implement the change as requested by the manager and inform the project sponsor.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following describes the LOWEST level of a work breakdown structure (WBS)?
A. Technical specifications
B. Project performance reports
C. Work packages
D. Functional specifications
Answer: C

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NO.7 A project team is comfortable working as a group and has accepted all the project ground rules. They
support each other to reach the project goals. Which of the following stages of team development is the
project team demonstrating?
A. Storming
B. Performing
C. Conforming
D. Forming
Answer: B

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NO.8 Design, launch, review and test are examples of which of the following work breakdown structure (WBS)
schemes?
A. Functions
B. Organizational units
C. Product components
D. Geographical areas
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following tools are used for quality planning? (Select TWO).
A. Cost / Benefit analysis
B. Network diagram
C. Benchmarking
D. Critical Path Method (CPM)
E. Parametric estimating
Answer: AC

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NO.10 Which of the following risk response strategies involves shifting the negative impact of a threat, along
with ownership of the response, to a third party?
A. Risk transfer
B. Risk avoidance
C. Risk sharing
D. Risk mitigation
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following tools is the BEST to measure data organized in time sequence?
A. Run chart
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram
Answer: A

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NO.12 A project manager receives a request for a minor change to one of the deliverables. Which of the
following documents would MOST likely be impacted?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Project charter
C. Communication plan
D. Quality plan
Answer: A

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NO.13 In which of the following organization types is it LEAST likely that a conflict regarding competing
demands for resources would take place?
A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Balanced Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following describes a qualitative risk analysis tool that assigns ratings to project risk
factors based upon the likelihood of occurrence and the affect it will have on the project?
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Risk register
C. Probability and impact matrix
D. Decision tree analysis
Answer: C

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NO.15 A project budget has been reduced by 10 percent, but the project has a critical deadline. Which of the
following should the project manager do FIRST to complete the project on time?
A. Lower the quality standards for the finished product.
B. Analyze the impact of the change.
C. Eliminate 10 percent of the projects resources.
D. Document the approved change request.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following should be created in the project closing documentation? (Select TWO).
A. Closure report summarizing costs
B. Responsibility assessment matrix
C. Lessons learned
D. Project timeline
E. Statement of Work (SOW)
Answer: AC

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NO.17 Which of the following activities would happen LAST in procurement management?
A. Request seller responses
B. Perform contract administration
C. Perform vendor selection
D. Perform a make or buy analysis
Answer: B

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NO.18 A project manager reports directly to the project management office of a company. All project team
members report to a functional manager; however, all the team members work assignments are made by
the project manager. Which of the following types of organizational structures does this represent?
A. Weak Matrix
B. Functional
C. Strong Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: C

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NO.19 Several key resources will be unavailable at the end of the project. The key stakeholders want to
outsource the project to a third party. Which of the following risk responses is described in this situation?
A. Risk avoidance
B. Risk mitigation
C. Risk acceptance
D. Risk transference
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following are process groups in the project life cycle? (Select THREE).
A. Accepting
B. Mitigating
C. Avoiding
D. Initiating
E. Closing
F. Planning
Answer: DEF

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NO.21 Which of the following quality control tools illustrates the various factors that may be linked to potential
problems or effects?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Histogram
C. Run chart
D. Scatter diagram
Answer: A

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NO.22 A project manager is two weeks into a project when an unexpected delay occurs. Material that is
needed to complete the project could be available in three business days; however, the project team
believes that estimate is unrealistic and that it will take five business days for the material to arrive. The
project manager was informed by another employee in the material company that it could take up to
thirteen days to receive the materials. Which of the following estimates should be given to the project
sponsor?
A. 5 business days
B. 6 business days
C. 8 business days
D. 13 business daysb
Answer: B

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NO.23 During a project status meeting a positive project risk is identified and is within the teams control.
Which of the following would be the BEST response?
A. Accept the risk.
B. Transfer the risk.
C. Mitigate the risk.
D. Exploit the risk.
Answer: D

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NO.24 A purpose of formal project closure is to:
A. assess blame for the failure of the project.
B. provide lessons learned for future projects.
C. start a new project.
D. outline the responsibilities of each team member.
Answer: B

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NO.25 Two of the stakeholders cannot agree on the project timeline or budget. The project is critical to the
success of the company. Which of the following actions should the project manager take NEXT?
A. Invite all of the stakeholders to a meeting to discuss project requirements.
B. Document the points of agreement and create the timeline and budget based upon the expectations of
the majority of the stakeholders.
C. Modify the project scope to bring it into alignment with the stakeholders expectations.
D. Inform the stakeholders that the project will be cancelled if they cannot agree.
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which of the following would be a direct output of the initiating process group? (Select TWO).
A. Project charter
B. Project management plan
C. Statement of Work (SOW)
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
E. Preliminary scope statement
Answer: AE

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NO.27 Which of the following are required to complete the pre-project setup? (Select THREE).
A. Completion of approved change control documents
B. Preparation of the project charter
C. Completion of the work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Obtaining final approval of the project charter
E. Validation of the project
F. Completion of the key performance indicators (KPIs)
Answer: BDE

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NO.28 The communication plan for a project is a subset of which of the following documents?
A. Project charter
B. Risk management plan
C. Project schedule
D. Project plan
Answer: D

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NO.29 Which of the following BEST describes the critical path of a project?
A. A modified version of a project schedule taking into account limited resources and external
dependencies.
B. The length of time between the two most critical milestones of a project.
C. The shortest possible path through a project, represented by the sum of the duration of all scheduled
activities, with zero float.
D. A PDM network diagram illustrating, in detail, all mandatory, discretionary and external dependencies
for a given project.
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which of the following would MOST likely be included in a project scope document?
A. WBS
B. Quality metrics
C. Risk responses
D. KPIs
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following are the types of disks or drives for CDs or DVDs?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Random Access Memory
B. Rewritable
C. Read Only Memory
D. Recordable
Answer: C, D, and B

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NO.2 What is the maximum limit on the amount of mercury in RoHS material?
A. 10 ppm
B. 1000 ppm
C. 1 ppm
D. 100 ppm
Answer: D

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NO.3 Sam works as a Network Administrator for company.com. The company has forty Windows XP based
systems. Sam has been assigned a task to remove malware from the corrupted systems. Which of the
following will he remove to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. Hardware
B. Spyware
C. Trojan horses
D. Adware
Answer: D, B, and C

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NO.4 Which of the following is the most common laptop battery found today?
A. NiCad
B. Lithium-Ion
C. NiMH
D. Energizer
Answer: B

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NO.5 What transfer rate is supported by the 72-pin SO-DIMM?
A. 32-bit
B. 8-bit
C. 64-bit
D. 16-bit
Answer: A

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NO.6 In which of the following sizes are the ExpressCard modules available?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ExpressCard/54
B. ExpressCard/34
C. ExpressCard/43
D. ExpressCard/45
Answer: B and A

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NO.7 Which of the following can occur if the power cable runs along with the computer network cable?
A. ESD
B. Broadcast storm
C. Surge
D. EMI
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which type of cleaning solution should be used on the exterior of computer components?
A. Alcohol
B. A glass cleaner
C. Soap and water
D. An antistatic spray
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following interfaces is the current standard for digital LCD monitors?
A. DVE
B. VGA
C. DVI
D. SVGA
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides
the ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer?
A. Riser card
B. Secure Digital (SD) card
C. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR)
D. Audio/modem riser
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following is the lightest but most expensive battery used in laptops?
A. Li-Ion
B. NiCad
C. NiMH
D. Sodium-Ion
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following devices is used to provide visual input that can be easily transferred over the
internet?
A. Solid-state drive
B. Webcam
C. Iomega Zip drive
D. Trackball
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following statements about High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is capable of delivering the highest quality digital video and multi-channel digital audio on a single
cable.
B. It has two types of connectors: Type A and Type B.
C. It is a new I/O bus technology that has more bandwidth than PCI and AGP slots.
D. It is an interface primarily used to connect hard disk and CD drives in a computer.
Answer: B and A

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NO.14 What is the IEEE Standard for Ethernet?
A. IEEE 802.2
B. IEEE 802.4
C. IEEE 802.1
D. IEEE 802.3
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is the other name for Firewire.?
A. IEEE 1395
B. IEEE 1394
C. IEEE 1396
D. IEEE 1397
Answer: B

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NO.16 What are the various standards of SCSI?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. SCSI-2
B. SCSI-1
C. SCSI-0
D. SCSI-3
Answer: B, A, and D

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NO.17 Which of the following motherboards use 5-pin DIN keyboard connectors?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ATA
B. XT
C. AT
D. ATX
Answer: B and C

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NO.18 What is the other name of a palmtop?
A. PDA
B. Desktop
C. Laptop
D. Tablet
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following organizations developed the hyper-threading technology?
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B. Intel
C. Cisco
D. HP
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following ports support hot swapping?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Parallel
B. Serial
C. IEEE 1394
D. USB
Answer: D and C

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NO.1 In which of the following attacks does an attacker intercept call-signaling SIP message traffic and
masquerade as the calling party to the called party and vice-versa?
A. Call tampering
B. Man-in-the-middle
C. Eavesdropping
D. Denial of Service
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is an XML-based framework developed by OASIS and used to exchange user,
resource and service provisioning information between cooperating organizations?
A. SOAP
B. SAML
C. SPML
D. XACML
Answer: C

CompTIA   CAS-001   CAS-001   CAS-001

NO.3 Which of the following terms is about communicating the user's need and ability to communicate, and
the medium through which that communication may occur?
A. Data sharing
B. Presence
C. Instant messaging
D. Audio conferencing
Answer: B

CompTIA   CAS-001자격증   CAS-001자료

NO.4 Which of the following is a declarative access control policy language implemented in XML and a
processing model, describing how to interpret the policies?
A. SAML
B. SOAP
C. SPML
D. XACML
Answer: D

CompTIA   CAS-001자료   CAS-001   CAS-001 pdf

NO.5 The Security Development Lifecycle (SDL) consists of various security practices that are grouped under
seven phases. Which of the following security practices are included in the Requirements phase.?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Incident Response Plan
B. Create Quality Gates/Bug Bars
C. Attack Surface Analysis/Reduction
D. Security and Privacy Risk Assessment
Answer: B,D

CompTIA   CAS-001   CAS-001

NO.6 Which of the following stages are involved in the successful implementation of a collaboration platform?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Ongoing collaboration solution design
B. Federated identity management
C. Platform implementation
D. Product and service integration
Answer: A,C

CompTIA시험문제   CAS-001시험문제   CAS-001   CAS-001

NO.7 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You need to conduct network reconnaissance,
which is carried out by a remote attacker attempting to gain information or access to a network on which it
is not authorized/allowed.
What will you do?
A. Use a SuperScan
B. Use a netcat utility
C. Use a vulnerability scanner
D. Use an idle scan
Answer: C

CompTIA   CAS-001시험문제   CAS-001덤프

NO.8 Collaboration platform offers a set of software components and services that enable users to
communicate, share information, and work together for achieving common business goals. What are the
core elements of a collaboration platform?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Product and service integration
B. Real-time communication
C. Change management
D. Team collaboration
E. Messaging
Answer: B,D,E

CompTIA덤프   CAS-001   CAS-001

NO.9 You need to ensure that a session key derived from a set of long-term public and private keys will not be
compromised if one of the private keys is compromised in the future?
A. Perfect forward secrecy
B. Secure socket layer
C. Secure shell
D. Security token
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following are the functions of a network security administrator? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Backing up the files
B. Writing computer software
C. Maintaining and implementing a firewall
D. Developing, maintaining, and implementing IT security
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.11 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You want the clients and servers in your
organization to be able to communicate in a way that prevents eavesdropping and tampering of data on
the Internet. Which of the following will you use to accomplish the task?
A. EFS
B. WEP
C. SSL
D. MS-CHAP
Answer: C

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NO.12 In which of the following activities an organization identifies and prioritizes technical, organizational,
procedural, administrative, and physical security weaknesses?
A. Social engineering
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. White box testing
D. Penetration testing
Answer: B

CompTIA   CAS-001   CAS-001

NO.13 Which of the following security practices are included in the Implementation phase of the Security
Development Lifecycle (SDL)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Establish Design Requirements
B. Perform Static Analysis
C. Use Approved Tools
D. Execute Incident Response Plan
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.14 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You want to allow some users to access a
particular program on the computers in the network. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Apply remote access policies
B. Apply NTFS permissions
C. Apply group policies
D. Apply account policies
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following is frequently used by administrators to verify security policies of their networks
and by attackers to identify running services on a host with the view to compromise it?
A. Fuzzer
B. Port scanner
C. MegaPing
D. UDP scan
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following components of a VoIP network is frequently used to bridge video conferencing
connections?
A. MCU
B. Videoconference station
C. IP Phone
D. Call agent
Answer: A

CompTIA시험문제   CAS-001자격증   CAS-001   CAS-001

NO.17 Which of the following is the most secure authentication scheme and uses a public key cryptography
and digital certificate to authenticate a user?
A. Form-based authentication
B. Basic authentication
C. Digest authentication
D. Certificate-based authentication
Answer: D

CompTIA덤프   CAS-001최신덤프   CAS-001시험문제   CAS-001자료

NO.18 Which technology can be used to help ensure the efficient transport of VoIP traffic?
A. DNS
B. QoS
C. H.323
D. RSTP
Answer: B

CompTIA   CAS-001   CAS-001   CAS-001

NO.19 Which of the following protocols is used extensively in communication and entertainment systems that
involve streaming media, such as telephony, video teleconference applications and web-based push to
talk features?
A. SIP
B. MGCP
C. H.323
D. RTP
Answer: D

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NO.20 SDLC phases include a minimum set of security tasks that are required to effectively incorporate
security in the system development process. Which of the following are the key security activities for the
development/acquisition phase?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Prepare initial documents for system certification and accreditation
B. Conduct the risk assessment and use the results to supplement the baseline security controls
C. Determination of privacy requirements
D. Initial delineation of business requirements in terms of confidentiality, integrity, and availability
Answer: A,B

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시험 번호/코드: 220-802
시험 이름: CompTIA (CompTIA A+ Certification Exam)

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NO.1 A technician gets a call from a customer stating that their computer will not boot. They are
getting
the following error invalid system disk. Which of the following should the technician check
FIRST?
A. Verify the operating system is installed correctly.
B. Verify that all removable drives are empty.
C. Verify Boot.ini is on the hard drive.
D. Verify the computer will boot into safe mode.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Phishing is:
A. an infection that causes a web browser to go to a different site than the one intended from a
search result page.
B. a technique used to obtain financial information from a user mimicking a legitimate website.
C. an infection that causes a computer to behave erratically by playing music and launching
browser windows.
D. a technique used to obtain financial information from a user by compiling information from
social networks and their friends.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A technician is creating an image that will be used to deploy Windows 7 to 100 PCs. Which of
the
following tools should be used to accomplish this?
A. SYSPREP
B. Windows 7 Advisor
C. CHKDSK
D. DISKPART
Answer: A

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NO.4 From which of the following tools can a technician locate the PID of an application?
A. Local Security Policy
B. MSCONFIG
C. Computer Management
D. Task Manager
Answer: D

CompTIA   220-802자격증   220-802

NO.5 Which of the following file system types is used for optical media?
A. FAT32
B. FAT
C. CDFS
D. NTFS
Answer: C

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NO.6 A user has not received any new emails on their smartphone in the last two days. The user is
able
to access the Internet without any problems. Which of the following should the user do FIRST?
A. Restart the smartphone
B. Reconfigure the smartphone email account
C. Resynchronize the smart phone
D. Update the operating system
Answer: A

CompTIA   220-802   220-802덤프   220-802

NO.7 A technician installed a second hard drive in a computer. Upon restart, a message appears
statinG. primary drive 0 not found. Press F1 to continue." Which of the following should the
technician check FIRST?
A. That NTLDR and boot.ini are not missing
B. Proper drive installation (e.g. cables/jumpers)
C. If computer can boot into safe mode
D. If the BIOS boot settings are correct
Answer: B

CompTIA자료   220-802   220-802   220-802

NO.8 When scheduling a backup for preventative maintenance, which of the following would
ensure all
data was captured?
A. Differential
B. Full
C. Incremental
D. Daily
Answer: B

CompTIA dump   220-802   220-802 dumps

NO.9 A user has too many applications starting when they log into windows. From the command
line,
which of the following tools is the FASTEST option to prevent these applications from running on
startup?
A. MSCONFIG
B. SERVICES.MSC
C. REGEDIT
D. MSINFO32
Answer: A

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NO.10 A technician would like to limit computer access to certain users. Which of the following
should be
configured?
A. Advanced security
B. Boot.ini file
C. System configuration
D. Local security policy
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: BI0-132
시험 이름: COGNOS (Cognos 8 BI Metadata Model Developer)

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NO.1 Which of the following data structures typically contain normalized data?
A. Cube
B. Flat file
C. Operational
D. Star schema
Answer: C

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NO.2 What does a star schema database structure typically consist of?
A. De-normalized hierarchy of dimension tables and fact tables.
B. Normalized dimension tables and detailed fact tables.
C. Normalized dimension tables and summarized fact tables.
D. De-normalized dimension tables and fact tables.
Answer: D

COGNOS   BI0-132 pdf   BI0-132   BI0-132 pdf

NO.3 The database table below would typically be found in what data structure?
A. Union
B. Normalized
C. Operational
D. Star schema
Answer: D

COGNOS인증   BI0-132   BI0-132

NO.4 If you are successful with this exam, do you agree to have your name made available to relevent IBM
personnel for project staffing?.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.5 Are you an:
A. IBM Customer
B. IBM Partner
C. IBM Employee
Answer: A

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NO.1 Online credit-card transactions require a payment gateway. Payment gateway software can be
installed on your Web server or hosted online. After you install a payment gateway, you must:
A. develop an effective marketing strategy.
B. install the e-commerce database system.
C. select and establish a compatible merchant account.
D. configure the gateway to work with your e-commerce server.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the name of the electronic funds transfer (EFT) system governed by the United States and
designed to provide the clearing of electronic payments between banks?
A. The National Clearing House (NCH) network
B. The Automated Clearing House (ACH) network
C. The Receiving Depository Financial Institution (RDFI)
D. The Originating Depository Financial Institution (ODFI)
Answer: B

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NO.3 Under Secure Electronic Transactions (SET), which three parties involved in a transaction are required
to use the SET protocol?
A. The merchant, the bank, the customer
B. The wholesaler, the merchant, the bank
C. The broker, the merchant, the customer
D. The customer, the credit card company, the bank
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have just developed a business-to-consumer (B2C) Web site that sells wetsuits for scuba diving.
You want to partner with another company to start a banner ad program. What sort of company would be
the most effective choice for a partner?
A. A company that sells canoes and small boats
B. A company that sells wetsuits mainly to surfers
C. A company that sells tanks, masks and snorkels
D. A company that sells a different brand of wetsuits
Answer: C

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NO.5 Nain is a front-desk receptionist at a large corporation. After a recent payday for the employees, Nain
received a phone call from someone claiming to be an employee who was out-of-state on an assignment.
This person asked Nain whether his check had been deposited, and to verify that the check was written to
a specific account name and bank routing number. This occurrence may be a type of attack known as a:
A. phishing attack.
B. pharming attack.
C. denial-of-service attack.
D. social-engineering attack.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following site creation models would be most appropriate for a site needing customer
relationship management (CRM) and personalization?
A. Online instant storefront
B. Mid-level online instant storefront
C. Mid-level offline instant storefront
D. High-level offline instant storefront
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following can help customers complete purchases more quickly?
A. A well-planned site hierarchy
B. Detailed descriptions of products
C. Product testimonials from other customers
D. An RSS feed directing customers to a site blog
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following pieces of information will best help you determine the number of transactions
your database server can accommodate?
A. Maximum uptime requirements
B. Minimum installation requirements
C. The number of database tables required
D. The number of concurrent user connections
Answer: D

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NO.9 Paul conducts business in a country that levies a value-added tax (VAT) on all goods purchased within
its borders. What must Paul configure in order to add a VAT automatically to the total cost of a purchase?
A. The shopping cart
B. The payment gateway
C. The inventory database
D. The purchasing database
Answer: A

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NO.10 You are considering payment methods for a business-to-business (B2B) e-commerce site. Which
payment method would be most appropriate for your needs?
A. Cash on delivery (c.o.d.)
B. Purchase order and post-purchase billing
C. Purchase request and pre-purchase billing
D. Advance payment using check or money order
Answer: B

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NO.11 Before you can conduct usability testing, you should:
A. identify your potential customers.
B. identify browser compatibility issues.
C. publish your site to a production server.
D. identify the most-traveled path of your site.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following is a common cause of a buffer overflow?
A. Unchecked data entered into the buffer
B. Unnecessary services running in the buffer
C. Repeated attempts to guess a password stored in the buffer
D. Unexpected SQL statements causing database information to be revealed in the buffer
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following describes a Sharable Content Object Reference Model (SCORM) manifest?
A. An XHTML document that is SCORM-conformant
B. An XML document that describes a Sharable Content Object (SCO)
C. A relational database that contains Sharable Content Object (SCO) information
D. A style sheet that gives structure to the page containing a Sharable Content Object (SCO)
Answer: B

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NO.14 An online instant storefront can build community by:
A. granting quantity discounts.
B. creating an e-mail newsletter.
C. using banner exchange programs.
D. providing a public listing of customer e-mail addresses.
Answer: B

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NO.15 You will be hiring someone to localize your e-commerce site in order to reach a specific audience.
Which of the following is most essential for the person you hire to effectively complete the job?
A. The ability to communicate clearly with the team that created the site
B. An understanding of the scripting language and database type used on the site
C. An understanding of the language and culture of the audience you want to reach
D. An understanding of the importance of the just-in-time (JIT) process to the company
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following describes a referrer program?
A. One site pays another site for the traffic it sends; traffic is directed in one direction.
B. One site pays several sites for traffic it sends; traffic is generated in multiple directions.
C. A third party verifies referrals from one site to another site as traffic flows from one to the other.
D. Referrals occur only after a company pays a commission for them; traffic is directed in one direction.
Answer: A

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NO.17 You are transitioning from a traditional "brick-and-mortar?storefront that accepts credit cards to a new
e-commerce storefront. Which payment method would be most appropriate during the transition?
A. Cash on delivery (c.o.d.)
B. Open Buying on the Internet (OBI)
C. Credit card with offline processing
D. Advance payment using check or money order
Answer: C

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NO.18 What security protocol typically allows Web-based applications to pass data securely by providing an
encrypted channel?
A. SET
B. SSH
C. SSL
D. HTTP
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following is the most effective strategy for conducting an opt-in e-mail marketing
campaign?
A. Send e-mail messages once a day to initial contacts for the first two weeks.
B. Send e-mail messages once every two weeks to follow up on an initial contact.
C. Create an executable Java application as an e-mail attachment that describes the company.
D. Create an executable ActiveX application as an e-mail attachment that describes the company.
Answer: B

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NO.20 The main purpose of monitoring e-commerce Web server resources and performance (including
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A. site availability.
B. visitor satisfaction.
C. cost-effectiveness.
D. increased profitability.
Answer: A

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